IS MUTAH HALAL OR HARAM (SYED AND NON SYED'S)

IS MUTAH HALAL OR HARAM (SYED AND NON SYED'S)??????

PLEASE GIVE ANY THOUGHT AND COMMENT PLEASE

THANK YOU

ALI J.J WARIS

here's a link but it does not clearly state my answer to the question:

http://hubeali.com/practices/chapter-6-family-life.pdf

YH I KNW THAT TOO....JUS HAD A CONVO WIV SUM1 I KNW...AND WER DISCUSSIN DIS MATTER....cz sum ppl said dat its is harram for syeds to do...... :S7

but ive read and been told exactly wat u said...

UR RITE AND I DNT GO BY WAT I SAY CZ THE HADITH I HAVE READ STATES IT IS HALAL......AS SHOWN IN LINK ABOVE.....BUT UR POINT IS VERY VERY TRUE....MUWAYIAS TRYIN TO CORRUPT THE MIND AND SPREAD HATE AS WELL AS GOING AGAINST THE AIMA A.S......

HAR DOUR DEY UMAR TEY LANAT
BESHUMAAAAR SUBHA SHAAM...TAH QAYAMAT!!


ALI HAQ HAIDER!!!!

i do still sand wiv the original ruling oh mutah is halal........... but thnks for contributing anyway...

i have seen the video but again thnks for contributin nd helpin out

OKAY THNKS

Tasfeer-e-Kabeer Pt-3 Page-286 :-" It is agreed fact for the whole Ummah that Muttah was lawful and admissible in Islam and no one has any dispute in it. "

Justification Of Muttah In the Light Of Holy Quran :-
Ayat-e-Muttah is in the Holy Quran , Allah says that we do not cancel any Ayat of Quran till we bring batter Ayat for that, so if the Ayat of Muttah is cancelled ( as it is claimed ) than which Ayat is revealed in its place which replaces the Ayat-e-Muttah ?
and if we don't find any replacement for Ayat-e-Muttah in Holy Quran , it means that Ayat-e-Muttah is not replaced or cancelled. and when a Hadeeth cannot cancel the Ayat of Holy Quran then how the declaration of some one can cancel the Ayat of Holy Quran ???
The Ayat of Muttah is as follow :-

Para-5 Surah Nisa, from the middle of Ayat-24. "

Urdu Translation :- " Jin Aurtoon sey tum ney Muttah kia hey un ka jo Mehr mukarrar hoa hey woh un ko dey do agar Mehr ki kami beshi par tum apas mein razi ho jaoto tumharey zimmey koi Guna nahi , Beshak Allah Aleem aur Hakeem hey "

Tafseer-e-Kabeer Pt-3 Page 289, Dur-e-Musoor Pt-2 Page-140.
" Abdullah Ibn-e-Mas'ood, Abdullah Ibn-e-Abbas and Abee Bin Kaab while reciting the above ayat-e-Muttah used to recite it in a such a way that its translation become like this :- " When you do Muttah with women for some fixed period you must pay their Mahr to them "
SAYING OF HAZRAT ALI ( A.S) :-
TAFSEER-E-KABEER Pt-3 Page-289, Dur-e-Mansoor Pt-2 Page-140.
If the Umer ( By using his state power ) would have not prohibited from Muttah then some most unfortunate and vulgar may have committed adultery ( Zina ).
Now from the above saying of Hazrat Ali it could be easy concluded that by stopping the legal and Sharri act of Muttah has resulted in the overspread of Zina and who is the one, responsible for the over spread Zina in Muslin Ummah ??????

Talib-e-Dua
Mahfooz Asghar
+96566498512

@ je gud brother Mutah Halal hai lakin is ki restriction bohat sakhat hain...

is ki conditions hai k kis waqt Mutah lago hota hai.... aur kis kis base par mutah kar saktay ho

Hazrat Ali a.s ka farmatay hain k agr Umer Mutah ko band na karte to aj zina aam na hota??????????????

just watch this video

bro and sister

http://majlis4u.blogspot.com/2009/06/muta-temporary-marriagewho-stopped-it.html

nice post last one brother silt_warrior110 today people dont khow about muta

this topic cum out sumwat wiv more comments den i fought but thnks all...jus that i got sum1 watchin this topic as they wnt to learn bout it!

from my understading there's hadiths for mutah and against it too, a brother once posted on a site about mutah being haram, i will find it if you like, anyways some believe its haram and some believe its halal and heres a clue to the answer:

no past prophets did it,
rasool (saw) didnt practice it
imams (saw) didnt practice it
imams (saw) sons and daughters never practiced it.

however, kafirs who reverted to islam practiced it,
...................................................

mutah is halal, but only for the ones who are not form the line of maula (saw) the non syeds, just like zakaat is halal for them

however

mutah is haram on all syeds, just like zakat is haram on all syeds.

here you go anyways lol, save somone posting for the hadiths against mutah, it was a post, posted by a brother on another forum:

:
( حرم رسول الله صلى الله عليه وآله يوم خيبر لحوم الحمر الأهلية ونكاح المتعة) انظر (التهذيب 2/186)، (الاستبصار 2/142) ، (وسائل الشيعة 14/441).

Amirul Mua'minin said: Prophet (s.a.w) forbade on the day of khaiber the meat of donkeys and mut'ah marriages.

(At-tahdheeb 2/186, Al-Istbsaar 2/142 & Wasael Al-Shia 14/144)


عن عبد الله بن سنان قال سألت أبا عبد الله عليه السلام عن المتعة فقال: (لا تدنس نفسك بـها) (بحار الأنوار 100/318).

It was narrated by Abdullah Bin Senan said : I asked Imam Jafar Sadiq about Mut'ah and he said: "Don't filthy (defile) your self with it"

(Bihaar Al-Anwar 100/318).


عن عمار قال: قال أبو عبد الله عليه السلام لي ولسليمان بن خالد: (قد حرمت عليكما المتعة) (فروع الكافي 2/48)، (وسائل الشيعة 14/450).

Narrated by A'maar: Imam Jafar Sadiq said to me and to Suliman Bin Khaled: "I made Mut'ah Haram on you"

(Furoo AlKafi 2/48 & Wasaeel Shia 14/450).

وكان عليه السلام يوبخ أصحابه ويحذرهم من المتعة فقال: أما يستحي أحدكم أن يرى موضع فيحمل ذلك على صالحي إخوانه وأصحابه؟ (الفروع 2/44)، (وسائل الشيعة 1/450).

Also he (Imam Jafar Sadiq(saw) used to rebuke and warn his companions against mut'ah

…… (Furoo 2/44), (Wasael Alshia 1/450)


ولما سأل علي بن يقطين أبا الحسن عليه السلام عن المتعة أجابه:

( ما أنت وذاك؟ قد أغناك الله عنها ) (الفروع 2/43)، الوسائل (14/449).

Ali bin Yaqteen asked Imam Ali about Mut'ah and he answered : "What is mutah? and what has that got to do with you? Allah had compensated you with something much better" (he meant legal marraige)

(Furoo 2/43), (Wasael Al-shia 14/449).

عبد الله بن عمير قال لأبي جعفر عليه السلام (يسرك أن نساءك وبناتك وأخواتك وبنات عمك يفعلن؟ -أي يتمتعن- فأعرض عنه أبو جعفر عليه السلام حين ذكر نساءه وبنات عمه) (الفروع 2/42)، (التهذيب 2/186)

Abdullah Bin Umair said to Imam Mohammad Baqir :Is it acceptable to you that your women, daughters, sisters, daughters of your aunties to do mutah? Abu Ja'far rebuked him when he mentioned his women and daughters of his aunties.

(Al-Furoo 2/42 & At-tahdheeb 2/186)

The Holy Prophet (p.b.u.h.) said: " Certainly, Allah, Almighty and Glorious, dislikes or curses any man or woman whose intention of divorce or marriage is merely tasting the pleasure of it."

Al-Kafi, vol. 6, p. 54

nice work brother

sorry guys here's alittle more,

in the quran:
And all married women (are forbidden unto you) save those (captives) whom your right hands possess.
It is a decree of Allah for you. Lawful unto you are all beyond those mentioned, so that ye seek them with
your wealth in honest wedlock, not debauchery. And those of whom ye seek content (by marrying them), give unto
them their portions as a duty. And there is no sin for you in what ye do by mutual agreement after the duty
(hath been done). Lo! Allah is ever Knower, Wise. 4:24
this above verse is used

again a brothers reply from a site of the above verse was:

there is no tafsir of the imams (saw) for the above ayat saying it is mutah, "right hands possess" can mean anything, men used to marry slaves, they used to purchase them and marry them( reading nikkah) .....there is no example of mutah in ancient times neither in times of imams , the word mutual can mean anything, and can be referring to anything, we cant do our own tafsir, besides mutual where it is used in this ayat does not mention any "temporary arrangement" this can be referring to anything, is this the only proof for mutah? because if it is a very weak argument..........

a woman is getting married to someone just for lust, and then splitting up and moving on to another

not forgetting if she has babies from a temporary marrage, what happens to them? some say it automatically turns into a full contract? isn't that not a contradiction? not mentioned in the original contract when one is specifying a time and date, one doesn't specify if having a baby it will become a full blown marrage?
is there even a hadith about a mutah marage which the lady has a baby end of the contract or before?

in islam we are taught to control our nafs and desires, control you're desires, as we are told to.
...........................................................
http://majlis4u.blogspot.com/2009/06/muta-temporary-marriagewho-stopped-it.html
sunni view is about umer making muta haram, i believe this video link will be confirming most of this,
i believe persoanally the reason why it was stopped by umer and his beautiful followers is because he, believed he was at the same rank
as maula (saw) or higher, in other words it was another attempt to bring down maulas (saw) and rasools (saw) status by doing this,
he made muta haram on non-syeds.It's obviously a fatwa by umar, why was it there? you think umar was against pleasure? its obvious
he's playing around trying to degrade maula (saw). for making muta haram on himself and ordinary people hes attempted to make his status higher, i'm surprised he didnt make zakat haram on himself and the people too as this would make his status higher.

I do personally believe mutah is haram only for syeds, the rest can mix and match in muta, its fine.... but theres alot to think about here. syeds stay away from desires and hold strong your nafs, non-syeds muta all the way but keep your eyes of syed women in both muta and full marrages.

again if i have offended anyone, please try not to complain lol, i apologise before hand, im a seeker
thank you

As for a start this is a nice attempt to try to confuse people into thinking Muta is haram however this is not the case. Yes they are some hadiths to say it is haram however these hadith are not accepted by Shias. Be it Akhbari or Usooli both agree Muta is halal. Unlike Sunnies we do not call our Books of Hadith Sahih. Even if one looks at Al kafi which means (sufficent). Now I shall deal with this reply in Two parts firstly looking at these hadiths and secondly replying to some of the Questions that have been raised.

Hadith 1

Prophet made Mut'ah haram on the day of Khayber
(Book of Tahdeeb: vol. 7, pg. 251, rewaya 10).

If you are Quoting the book, did it not come into you mind to read the foot notes of the author? Shaykh Tusi who included the hadith himself rejected the traditions in his commentary of this hadith, he commented:

This narration was on account of Taqiyyah, this is in fact the aqeedah of the opponents of the Shi'a, those with knowledge should be aware that in our Imam's religion, Mut'ah is Mubah.

Tahdeeb al-Ahkam, Volume 7 page 251 Hadith (1085)10

As for the narrator of this hadith narrator in the chain is Husayn bin Alwan, about whom we read in Rijjal al Kashi and Rijjal al Kabeer:

"He was a 'Aam' Kufi"

When our hadith grades a person as 'Aam' this means that he was 'common' a Sunni. Now do you take you hadiths from people who used to follow the sunnah of Umar?

Having Sunni narrators in Shia text is not a strange thing. If we analyze the Shia text, we would come to know that some Shia narrators used to take traditions from Sunni narrators mixing up the chain of narration, as we read in Rijal Kashi, Volume 2 page 855:

Ibn Shaza said: 'My father [ra] asked Muhammad bin Abi Umair: 'You met many A'ama (Sunni) scholars, how come you didn't hear (hadith) from them?' He replied: 'I heard (hadith) from them, but I saw many of our (Shia) companions heard from the A'ama (Sunni) narrations and Khasa (Shia) narrations, then they mixed up until they attributed the narrations of A'ama (Sunnis) with the Khasa (Shia) and the narrations of Khasa (Shia) with the A'ama (Sunnis), therefore I disliked to mix up the traditions, so I left that and remained on that (narrating only from Shia).'


Keeping this thing in mind, we know that the prohibation of Mutah at Khayber narrated by Ali [as] is found in Sunni text, it is quite possible that the shia narrators heard it from the Sunni narrators. And most importantly, the cited traditions narrated by Ali [as] suggest that Mut'ah was prohibited at Khayber whereas we already have advanced authentic traditions both Shia and Sunni that point to the practice of Mut'ah after the victory of Makka, a year after Khayber. So how could it be possible that the Imam (as) would have allowed people to carry on doing it and say himself, "had Umar not ban Muta they would be no Zinnah in the world!"

Hadith 2

Narrated by A'maar: Abu Abdullah said to me and to Suliman Bin Khaled: "I made Mut'ah Haram on you"

This is a butchered hadith, If you going to post somthing go back and check the source. Let us cite the entire tradition with its full context.

"I have made Mutah haram for you two in my presence as long as you two are in Madinah, becuase both of you come to me frequently and I fear that you will be caught and it will be said, 'these are the companions of Jafar.'"


Al-Kafi, Volume 5 page 467 Hadith 9
Wasail al Shia, Volume 21 page 22 Hadith 26424

The situation in Madina at that time was difficult for the Shi'a and any sign from the the sahabah of Imam Jafar [as] about deeming Mutah Halal could have put their lives in danger. It is clear that this edict was said under taqiyyah for those companions of the Imam [as] because contracting Mutah is not more valuable than one's life. If Mutah was haram the Imam would have told both companions to permanently refrain from Mutah whether they were in Madina or outside it.


Hadith 3

Ja'far Al-Sadiq says in a narration by Abdallah bin Sinan: "I asked Abu Abdullah (as) about Mutah. He said: "Don't defile yourself with it"

Bihaar Al-Anwar, Volume 100, page 318

The statement of Imam Jafar Sadiq [as] was in referred to the personal situation of Abdullah bin Sinan since he was a married man and his sole objective behind Mutah was to derive sexual pleasure, thus Imam Jafar [as] just advised him not to do it since it was 'unnecessary' for him. Abdullah bin Sinan is has seen the periods of two Imams namely Imam Baqir [as] and Imam Jafar Sadiq [as]. Imam Jafar al-Sadiq [as] became Imam after his father and started teaching when He was 31 years old. Abdullah bin Sinan supposed to be in the same age of Imam Jafar al-Sadiq [as] because he probably died before Imam Sadiq [as] or few months after Imam Sadiq [as]. According to this tradition:

Umar bin Yazid narrated said: 'I heard Abu Abdullah [as] mentioning Abdullah bin Sinan and said: 'He is getting more benefits as he is getting older.''

Rijal Kishi, Volume 2 page 710
Min la Yhdruhu al-Faqih, Volume 4 page 431

Which means Abdullah bin Sinan was an elderly man during Imam Jafar al-Sadiq's time and most probably he was older than Imam Jafar al-Sadiq [as]. Therefore, it he cannot be single by that age because the Shias, in fact all of the people of that time used to get married in young age and during Imam Jafar's [as] time of Imamate, Abdullah bin Sinan's age cannot be less than 30s. thus Imam Jafar [as] just advised him not to do it since it was 'unnecessary' for him. This is similar to the case of Ibn Yaqtin, a married man who asked Imam Raza [as] about Mutah, to which the Imam [as] replied: "What you have to do with this, when Allah has made this unnecessary for you." (Wasa'il, Volume 21, page 22).

As stated by Imam Raza [as], Mutah is 'unnecessary' when one's wife is already present otherwise it may cause problems pertaining to the mistreatment of women. Imam Raza [as] in another hadith has elaborated on the matter as follows:

Imam Abu Hasan [as]: "It is Halal, Mubah Mutlaq, for he whom Allah has not made this unnecessary through marriage. So seek chastity through Mutah. If Allah has made this unnecessary for you, then it is permissible for you only when you do not have access to your wife."

al-kafi, Volume 5 page 453, Hadith 2
Wasail al Shia, Volume 21 page 22 Hadith 26421

'Mustadrak-ul-Wasail' (vol 14 page 455) records the tradition of Abdullah bin Sinan under the chapter of "The disliking of Mutah when one does not need it and when it necessitates repulsiveness and mistreatment of women" this concurs with logic and Quranic injunctions. If you Quoting from a book do you now read the chapter it is headed under?

As for the Questions you have asked, did the Aima (as) do Muta? The Holy Prophet [s] and the Imams of Ahlubayt [as] never practised Mut'a because they already had permanant wives and according to Shia fiqh it is disliked to perform Mut'a in the presence of a permanant wife as you have mentioned above in the traditions of Abdullah bin Sinan and Ibn Yaqteen.

Now can you show me a single Hadith where the Aima (as) did muta? forget muta how about reading Adhan or Aqamah ? The absurd argument if applied here, would mean that we should deem Iqamah and Adhan Haram since there is no evidence that the Aima (as) ever recited it thus one should remember that what Holy Prophet [s] said, it shall suffice to act on it accordingly even if he didn't act upon it personaly. And on the final point, you claim the Quran verse of 4.24 is nothing about Muta can you prove otherwise?



Anyone else who wants to play games?

great, wel i dont disagree with mutah brother, what i presented was from another forum from another brother, so what you're saying is they are WEAK hadiths. thats good to know, i didnt know the background, thats why we have knowledgable people to correct us or give us more info, i wasnt fooling anyone. your replies will help stregthen muta practices and i am happy with your replies, mutah is halal

i believe its fine for all non-syeds to do muta, as it was practiced by non syeds whether prohibitted or not,

your reason for rasoolillah (saw) imams (saw) all masooms (saw) not doing mutah was because?? they entered into full marrages (your opinion? or maula (saw) reasoning for not doing muta?) therefore they were too late to practice it? or they (saw) were not aware of muta before being fully married?

ok lets forget this for a second, do you have anything from sunni,shia, from enemies, any history that any of the imams (saw) sons, daughters practiced mutah? or were they too, too late as when they entered a full marrage then they realised there was somthing called mutah? i mean these people will be lesser of an importance, so even one out of the 10 imams (saw) sons/daughters must have practiced it?

i agree with mutah for non syeds brother, but not for syeds, for syeds from their holy line from adam (as) to ibrahim (as) rasool (saw) bibi (saw) imams (saw) masooms (saw) to their (saw) sons and daughters, no mutah has been documented once, if it ever had it was only for the non syeds..................

thats all i have for my stand in what i believe so far.